Problem Sheet 3¶
Question 1¶
In each of the following non-complete spaces, give examples of a nonconvergent Cauchy sequence.
- \(X = c_00\), the space of sequences which are eventually zero, under \(d_\infty(\mathbf{x}, \mathbf{y}) = \sup_k |x_k - y_k|\).
- \(X = \ell^1\) under \(d_2(\mathbf{x}, \mathbf{y}) = \left(\sum_{k = 1}^\infty |x_k - y_k|^2 \right)^{1 / 2}\).
- \(X = C^1[0, 1]\), the space of all functions \(f: [0, 1] \to \mathbb{R}\) such that \(f' \in C[0, 1]\), with the metric \(d_\infty(f, g) = \lVert f - g \rVert_\infty = \sup_{t \in [0, 1]} |f(t) - g(t)|\).
Solution
- In \((c_{00}, \lVert \cdot \rVert_\infty)\), the sequence \((x_n)_{n = 1}^\infty\) defined by \(x_n = (1, \frac{1}{2}, \dots, \frac{1}{n}, 0, 0, \dots)\) is Cauchy since if \(m > n\), then \(\lVert x_n - x_m \rVert\)_\infty = \frac{1}{n + 1} \to 0$, but it is not convergent since \((1, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{3}, \dots) \notin c_{00}\).
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In \((\ell^1, \lVert \cdot \rVert_2)\), we take the same sequence as in part 1. This is Cauchy since if \(m > n\), then
\[\lVert x_n - x_m \rVert = \sum_{k = n + 1}^m \frac{1}{k^2} < \sum_{k = n + 1}^\infty \frac{1}{k^2} \to 0 \text{ as } m, n \to \infty.\]However, the sequence does not converge since \((1, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{3}, \dots) \notin \ell^1\).
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In \((C^[0, 1], \lVert \cdot \rVert_\infty)\), the sequence \((f_n)_{n = 1}^\infty\) defined by \(f_n(x) = \sqrt{(x - \frac{1}{2})^2 + \frac{1}{n}}\) is Cauchy but is not convergent since the limit is \(f \notin C^1 [0, 1]\) defined by \(f(x) = |x - \frac{1}{2}|\).
Question 2¶
Is \((\mathbb{Z}, |\cdot|)\) complete?
Solution
Any Cauchy sequence in \((\mathbb{Z}, |\cdot|)\) must be eventually constant since the terms must become arbitrarily close together. As such each Cauchy sequence converges in \((\mathbb{Z}, |\cdot|)\) hence \((\mathbb{Z}, |\cdot|)\) is complete.
Question 3¶
Adapt the proof that \(C[0, 1]\) is complete to prove that the set \(\ell^\infty\) of all bounded sequences under the norm \(\lVert (x_1, x_2, \dots)\rVert = \sup_k |x_k|\) is complete.
Solution
Suppose that \((x_n)_{n = 1}^\infty\) is a Cauchy sequence in \((\ell^\infty, \lVert \cdot \rVert_\infty)\). Then for each \(k \in \mathbb{Z}^+, (x_{n, k})_{n = 1}^\infty\) is a Cauchy sequence in \(\mathbb{R}\). As \(\mathbb{R}\) is complete, there is a number \(L_k \in \mathbb{R}\) such that \(\lim_{n \to \infty} x_{n, k} = L_k\).
We claim that \((x_n)_{n = 1}^\infty\) converges to \(L = (L_k)_{k = 1}^\infty\) uniformly.
Fix \(\epsilon > 0\). Then there is an \(N_\epsilon \in \mathbb{Z}^+\) such that \(\lVert x_n - x_m \rVert < \frac{\epsilon}{2}\) for all \(m, n > N_\epsilon\). Fix \(k \in \mathbb{Z}^+\). Then there is an \(m_{\epsilon, k} > N_\epsilon\) such that \(|x_{m_{\epsilon, k}} - L_k| < \frac{\epsilon}{2}\). Hence, for \(n > N_\epsilon\), we have that
As \(k\) was arbitrary, we have that \(\lVert x_n - L \rVert_\infty = \sup_{k \in \mathbb{Z}^+} \lVert x_{n, k} - L_k \rVert \leq \epsilon\) for all \(n > N_\epsilon\), and thus \((x_n)_{n = 1}^\infty\) converges to \(L\) uniformly. Also, since a Cauchy sequence is bounded, \(M = \sup_n \lVert x_n \rVert_\infty\) exists, and so the above equation shows that
As this si true for all \(\epsilon > 0\), we also have that \(\lVert L \rVert_\infty \leq M\). In fact, the above shows that \(\lVert L \rVert_\infty = \lim_{n \to \infty} \lVert x_n \rVert_\infty\).) So \(L \in \ell^\infty\) as it is a bounded sequence, and \((\ell^\infty, \lVert \cdot \rVert_\infty)\) is complete.
Question 4¶
Two metric spaces \((X, d_X)\) and \((Y, d_Y)\) are said to be homeomorphic if there exists a bijection \(f: X \to Y\) (called a homeomorphism) which is continuous and whose inverse \(f^{-1}: Y \to X\) is also continuous. (Note that \(f^{-1}\) exists for any bijection!).
Suppose that \(f: X \to Y\) is a homeomorphism.
- Explain why \(U \subseteq X\) is open (in \((X, d_X)\)) if and only if \(f(U) \subseteq Y\) is open (in \((Y, d_Y)\)).
- Consider the sets \(\mathbb{R}, (0, \infty)\) and \([0, \infty)\) with the usual metric. Which, if any, of these pairs of spaces are homeomorphic. Prove your answer.
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Prove or give counterexamples:
- \(X\) is bounded if and only if \(Y\) is bounded.
- \(X\) is complete if and only if \(Y\) is complete.
Solution
- Since \(f: X \to Y\) is a homeomorphism then \(g = f^{-1}: Y \to X\) is continuous. If \(U\) is open in \(X\), then \(f(U) = g^{-1}(U)\) is open since \(g^{-1}\) is continuous. Similarly, if \(f(U)\) is open in \(Y\), then $ = f^{-1}(f(U))$ is open in \(X\) since \(f\) is continuous.
- \(\mathbb{R}\) and \((0, \infty)\) are homeomorphic since \(\exp : \mathbb{R} \to (0, \infty)\) and \(\ln : (0, \infty) \to \mathbb{R}\) are continuous. However, \([0, \infty)\) cannot be homeomorphic to any of \(\mathbb{R}\) or \((0, \infty)\). Suppose that \(h: [0, \infty) \to \mathbb{R}\) is a homeomorphism. Then the restriction of \(h\) to \((0, \infty)\) is a homeomorphism onto \(\mathbb{R} \setminus \{h(0)\}\). But \(\mathbb{R} \setminus \{h(0)\}\) is not path-connected, contradicting the fact that continuous functions preserve path-connected sets.
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Both are incorrect, we provide counterexamples:
- \((0, 1)\) is bounded in \((0, \infty)\) but \(\ln((0, 1)) = (-\infty, 0)\) which is unbounded in \(\mathbb{R}\).
- \(\mathbb{R}\) is complete but \((0, \infty)\) is not.
Question 11¶
Consider the ODE
Using the notation of the notes, let \(G = (-1, 1) \times (0, 2)\). Find values of \(K\) and \(M\) for the boundedness conditions (A) and (B) for \(g\) on \(G\). Now choose \(\delta\) as in the proof of Picard's Theorem and therefore identify the set \(X_1 \subseteq C[-\delta, \delta]\) on which the contradiction mapping is defined (and in which the solution of the ODE lies).
Solution
First, we find that
and
so we can take the Lipschitz constant as \(K = 3\). The conditions we need to satisfy for \(\delta\) are
- \((x_0 - \delta, x_0 + \delta) \subseteq (a,b)\), which in this case will be \((-\delta, \delta) \subseteq (-1, 1)\);
- \((y_0 - K\delta, y_0 + K\delta) \subseteq (0, 2)\), which in this case will be \(\delta < \frac{1}{K} = \frac{1}{3}\);
- \(\delta < \frac{1}{M} = \frac{1}{2}\).
So \(\delta = \min(1, \frac{1}{3}, \frac{1}{2}) = \frac{1}{3}\).